Name: 
 

Bio 2421-Test 3 Review



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 

Most spirochetes are __ saprobes, adapted to soil and water habitats, or commensals in the __ of animals, yet three genera encompass human pathogens: Borrelia, Leptospira, and Treponema.  They are all gram-negative, helical, and motile by _____ _______.
a.
free-living, GI tract, axial filaments
b.
parasitic, skin, amphitrichous flagella
 

2. 

No organism other than __ have been found to harbor T. pallidum.  Experimental inoculations in animals fail to establish __ lesions, and humans appear to be the sole host and __ source of infection.
a.
humans, syphilic, natural
b.
males, infective, latent
 

3. 

Syphilis transmission by __ contact is by far the most frequent but not exclusive mode.  Instances of transfer by fomites, laboratory accidents, blood transfusion and even __, though rare, are known.
a.
sexual, transplacental infection
b.
vector, aerosol
 

4. 

The incidence of syphilis and other STD infections is least associated with which of the following characteristics?
a.
metropolitan settings
b.
prostitution
c.
AIDS
d.
IV drug abuse
e.
exercise gyms
 

5. 

The spirochetes differ from the helical or vibriod gram-negative rods because spirochetes:
a.
don't cause disease.
b.
possess axial filaments.
c.
possess flagella.
d.
are prokaryotic.
e.
none of the above distinguish spirochetes from spirilla
 

6. 

Leptospirosis is a zoonotic infection contracted from two species, Leptospira interrogans and L. biflexa.  What trait makes this infection hard to eradicate?
a.
adapted primarily to the tropics
b.
harbored by many wild animals and some livestock
c.
are shed with the urine, remain viable for several months in moisture
d.
portal of entry and source are abraided skin contacting polluted water
e.
disseminating leptospiremia leads to brain, eye, liver and kidney damage
 

7. 

Ticks and lice are the main __ in the transmission of relapsing fevers like borrelioses.  Prominent __ hosts are squirrels, rodents, and chipmunks.  Laboratory study is hampered by the inability to propagate Borrelia on __ media.
a.
vectors, reservoir, artificial
b.
sources, accidental, viable
 

8. 

Two genera are zoonotic pathogens and another pair are human pathogens.  Which genus is most opportunistic?
a.
Pseudomonas
b.
Bordetella
c.
Legionella
d.
Brucella
e.
Francisella
 

9. 

Endotoxic shock that accompanies gram-negative __ poses a life-threatening __ in blood pressure and flow.  Vital organs at risk include the __, heart, lungs, and kidney.
a.
syndrome, rise, lymph nodes
b.
sepsis, drop, brain
 

10. 

Pseudomonads have genomes that code for diverse enzymes such as __ , which digests proteins.
a.
amylase
b.
pectinase
c.
protease
d.
endonuclease
e.
cellulase
 

11. 

Pseudomonas spp. exoenzymes enable them to utilize exotic substrates in wastes and __, some of which are toxic to vertebrates.  Since these versatile bacteria can degrade organic commodities like soap and gasoline, drug __ is not unexpected.
a.
preservatives, half-life
b.
pollutants, resistance
 

12. 

Pseudomonas aeurginosa is not:
a.
a strict pathogen
b.
wherever soil and dust can go
c.
a medical devices contaminant
d.
an occasional human enteric
e.
soap, detergent, dessication resistant
 

13. 

Although undulant fever is neither __, nor __, antimicrobics like tetracycline, rifampin, and streptomycin are indicated.  Preventative measures entail eliminating infected animals and __ of milk.  An animal vaccine is available but no safe human version has been developed yet.
a.
lethal, contagious, pasteurization
b.
noncommunicable, zoonotic, sterilize
 

14. 

Pertussis is not:
a.
called whooping cough
b.
caused by Bordetella pertussis
c.
potentially life-threatening
d.
contagious
e.
a childhood affliction
 

15. 

Diarrhea is most commonly elicited by:
a.
normal flora
b.
intestinal disorders
c.
exogenous pathogens
d.
food poisoning
e.
neural origin, drugs
 

16. 

The Enterobacteriaceae do not manifest:
a.
saprobic, enteric adaptation
b.
aerobic, facultative metabolism
c.
gram-negative, rod shapes
d.
diarrhea provocation
e.
endosporulation, cysts
 

17. 

The gram-negative enterics are:
a.
ferment glucose
b.
reduce nitrate to nitrite
c.
oxidase negative
d.
coliforms and noncoliforms
e.
all of these
 

18. 

The causative agent of Bang’s disease in cattle (usually called undulating fever when transmitted to humans by way of infected animals or contact with contaminated animal products) is the bacterium:
a.
Bordetella pertussis
b.
Legionella sp.
c.
Brucella sp.
d.
Camplobacter fetus
e.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
 

19. 

The greatest cause of mortality among infants world-wide is:
a.
congenital syphilis
b.
bubonic plague
c.
meningitis
d.
infantile diarhhea
e.
scarlet fever
 

20. 

Which of the following genera are NOT enterics or members of the Family Enterobacteriaceae?
a.
Salmonella and Shigella
b.
Escherichia and Klebsiella
c.
Yersinia and Proteus
d.
Pasteurella and Haemophilus
e.
All of the above are enterics
 

21. 

The organism responsible for bubonic plague is:
a.
Escherichia coli
b.
Yersinia pestis
c.
Haemophilus influenza
d.
Vibrio cholerae
e.
Chamydia trachomatis
 

22. 

The genus of bacteria traditionally classified according to a system developed by Rebecca Lancefield (Group A, B, C, etc.) based on cell wall carbohydrates is:
a.
Staphylococcus
b.
Salmonellae
c.
Escherichia
d.
Streptococcus
e.
Corynebacterium
 

23. 

Which of these organs is most frequently affected by rheumatic fever?
a.
heart
b.
lungs
c.
brain
d.
intestine
e.
skin
 

24. 

A very severe, even deadly, type of food poisoning is caused by the anaerobic, spore-forming:
a.
Proteus vulgaris
b.
Mycobacterium leprae
c.
Salmonella typhi
d.
Clostridium botulinum
e.
Entamoeba histolytica
 

25. 

S. aureus is perhaps the most resistant nonsporeforming pathogen, a prevalent hospital troublemaker.  It tolerates all but:
a.
dessication, salt
b.
ionizing radiation
c.
anaerobic conditions
d.
disinfectants, antibiotics
e.
temperature extremes
 

26. 

The virulence factor of S. aureus that accounts for pathogenicity:
a.
coagulase
b.
enterotoxin
c.
exfoliative toxin
d.
leukocidin
e.
all of these
 

27. 

The effect of exfoliative toxin is called the scalded skin syndrome because of some semblance to:
a.
an actual burn
b.
molting skin
 

28. 

Outbreaks of staphylococcal food poisoning are least associated with:
a.
rich, processed meats
b.
promptly refrigerated food
c.
nasal carrier cook
d.
repeatedly handled foods
e.
all of these
 

29. 

All of the following streptococci are human pathogens but the most virulent is:
a.
S. agalactiae
b.
Enterococcus faecalis
c.
S. mutans
d.
S. pneumoniae
e.
S. pyogenes
 

30. 

The Lancefield convention for streptoccal classification by alphabet is based upon:
a.
blood agar hemolysis
b.
serological differentiation; cell wall carbohydrates
 

31. 

A member of normal flora, Streptococcus agalactiae is representative of Lancefield group:
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
G
 

32. 

The test that differentiates group A, Streptococcus pyogenes from other b-hemolytic streptococci is a positive __ test.
a.
CAMP factor
b.
bacitracin sensitivity
c.
hippurate hydrolysis
d.
bile esculin
 

33. 

Even though the viridans streptococci of the oral cavity are noninvasive, by their very presence, they leak into the bloodstream through nicks and abrasions associated with:
a.
chewing
b.
brushing of teeth
c.
dental work
d.
biting
e.
all of these
 

34. 

A typical encounter with N. gonorrhoea is through __ contact of genital mucosa.  During natural childbirth with an infected mother, the neonatal __ is vulnerable.  In males infection usually targets the __ lining, but chronic infection may reach the spermatic duct where obstructive scars form.
a.
sexual, conjunctiva, urethra
b.
casual, skin, anal
 

35. 

The group least susceptible to meningococcal meningitis, but vulnerable to Haemophilus influenzae are:
a.
neonates at home
b.
children 6-36 months old
c.
adolescents, teenagers
d.
young adults
e.
older adults
 

36. 

By comparison, the number of pathogenic bacilli __ that of pathogenic cocci.  The __ of pathogenic sporeforming bacilli is also greater than that of sporeforming cocci.
a.
exceeds, variety
b.
is less than, limits
 

37. 

Which of the following characteristics is not applicable to the genus Bacillus?
a.
nutritionally fastidious
b.
antibiotic source
c.
in soil, dust, water, on plants
d.
aerobic, catalase positive
e.
diverse hydrolytic enzymes
 

38. 

Anthrax is primarily a __ disease harbored among __ animals that become infected by breathing dust and feeding on rough vegetation contaminated with __ of Bacillus anthracis.
a.
zoonotic, grazing, spores
b.
genetic, wild, bacilli
 

39. 

One form of __ poisoning is caused by __ cereus, a saprobic soil inhabitant.  Spore-bearing dust wafted upon precooked dishes, rice, potato, or meat to be cooked, are typical modes of contamination.
a.
food, Bacillus
b.
allergenic, Clostridium
 

40. 

Characteristics by which Clostridium is differentiated from Bacillus are __ and __ traits.
a.
soil, water habitat
b.
anaerobic, catalase negative
c.
invasivness, toxigenicity
d.
sporeformer, nonsporeformer
e.
saprobe, parasitism
 

41. 

The etiologic agent of gas gangrene is:
a.
Clostridium perfringens
b.
Cl. botulinum
c.
Bacillus anthracis
d.
all the above
e.
both a and b
 

42. 

Clostridium tetani is a __ inhabitant and a harmless __ colonist of animals.  However, the deep inoculation of spores into crushed, burned, punctured, __ wounds sets the stage for tetanus.
a.
soil, gut, microanaerobic
b.
sporadic, commensal, aerated
 

43. 

The type of food most often associated with botulism is:
a.
pasteurized dairy goods
b.
commercial jerky meat
c.
brand name fruit preserves
d.
home processed, low-acid vegetables
e.
deep fried fish
 

44. 

When preparing to consume home-preserved food, which precaution will most reliably prevent exposure to botulism?
a.
tomatoes and fruits are consistently safe since they are acidic foods
b.
canned or bottled preserves that show no sign of bulging or leakage are safe
c.
opened preserves that don't look or smell spoiled are safe
d.
sprinkle sodium nitrite, salt, or vinegar on food
e.
boil food for at least ten minutes
 

45. 

Listeria monocytogenes is the agent of __, an affliction of recent prominence.  Infection in the otherwise healthy person is mild or __ with symptoms resembling the common cold.  Outbreaks in pregnancy have caused spontaneous __ or stillbirth, and have been linked to contaminated cheese or other dairy products.
a.
listerine, prominent, generation
b.
listeriosis, subclinical, abortion
 

46. 

Which traits are not typical of the cells of the genus Mycobacteria?
a.
slow growing, granulated
b.
curved, filamentous rods
c.
impervious, lipid enveloped
d.
acid-fast, gram-positive
e.
motile, sporeforming
 

47. 

Normally the body is __ to infection by the tubercle bacillus.  The microbe enters and initially __ in target tissue.  A __ response is marshalled, attempting to limit dissemination.
a.
permissive, settles, phagocytic
b.
receptive, establish, compromise
 

48. 

The minimum infectious dose for tuberculosis is on the order of:
a.
1-2 cells
b.
about 10 cells
 

49. 

Leprosy diagnosis performed with a simple feather serves to reveal:
a.
skin sensory loss
b.
patient's history
c.
acid-fast bacilli
d.
amputated hands or feet
e.
muscle weakness, thickened earlobes
 

50. 

Treatment for leprosy is very slow, but not because the:
a.
mycobacteria are slow growers
b.
bacilli have waxy envelope
c.
shielded in granuloma core
d.
bacilli are intracellular
e.
mycobacteria are acid-fast
 



 
Check Your Work     Reset Help